xmha97
xmha97 xmha97
  • 21-02-2021
  • Mathematics
contestada

Is this possible?
a=b
a²=ab
a²-b²=ab-b²
(a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b)
(a+b)=b
a+a=a
2a=a
2=1​

Respuesta :

barrsolesiade
barrsolesiade barrsolesiade
  • 21-02-2021

Answer:

No. It is not possible.

Answer Link
19allenethm
19allenethm 19allenethm
  • 21-02-2021

Step-by-step explanation:

No, that is not possible.

The problem lies in that [tex]a=b[/tex].

Looking at your fourth line of work, [tex](a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b)[/tex]

You divided by [tex](a-b)[/tex].

And because [tex]a=b[/tex], [tex]a-b=0[/tex]

This means that when you divided by [tex](a-b)[/tex] you divided by zero, which cannot happen.

Answer Link

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